could relativity proof have been falsified?

[Outlaw]

Originally Posted by raaaid

i already answered cause they are cherry picked words

So what? You claimed that ranking is based on traffic. Show me ANYWHERE that states Google knows the traffic level of every server it indexes and how it uses that information in the ranking.

As usual, you just ignore and/or deflect the questions that prove you are wrong.

Originally Posted by raaaid

your ignoring the fact that i provided a high level link claiming refraction light bending WASNT TAKEN INOT ACCOUNT till the 90s, what means eisntein didnt acount for what means einstein is a farce as the stablishment truths

It said that AS FAR AS THE AUTHOR KNOWS no one took it into account. That does not mean that it was never taken into account.

Regardless, just because it was not taken into account does not mean that it was not addressed. It may not have been possible to take it into account at that time and thus it was chosen to ignore it until the technology was capable of more accurate measurements. That's why I said you should find out exactly what the experiment was and how it was done.

But you didn't do that. Instead you just regurgitated the same stuff that others had been saying for years.

Of course, NONE OF THAT MATTERS because, thanks to your magic "4th hit on google", we now know that Einstein has been shown to be accurate.

Originally Posted by raaaid

culombs or montomon laws im not sure any more what to wrtie when asked in physics exam about friction

You should write that you will not be taking anymore physics classes because it is obvious to even the most dessicated pile of howler monkey feces that you will never be able to pass.

How can you not understand something so simple?

The EQUATION is NOT a function of the surfaces.
The coefficient of friction IS A FUNCTION OF THE SURFACES.

So it is true that, when manipulating the equation there is no dependence on the surface, BUT, when determining the coefficient of friction it is dependent on the surface.

Originally Posted by raaaid

of course its counterintuitive, as counterituivtive as all false things

There is nothing false or counter intuitive about it. Little kids and 108 year old fresh out of the amazon tribal elders can understand the above. Why do you refuse to learn it?

Originally Posted by raaaid

oh but no way can we both outlaw and me be samrter than those HISTORIC genious who are conspiring and reading this at this very same moment 500 years ago

The above statement is so stupid it can't be described by any language currently existing on this planet. I do not discount, however, the possibility of some alien language being able to adequately express the aforementioned level of the statement's stupidity.

Originally Posted by raaaid

what happens if you have a double ramp like this ^ in which two identical weights are united through a pulley by an string

the coeficient of friction of the left is 0.1 while in the right 0.9, both weights produce a tangential force to the ramp bigger than friction for being very heavy

You have failed to completely describe the system, however, it can still be answered...

The acceleration of each body will be equal to the sum of the forces acting upon it divided by its mass.

--Outlaw.