Why still no dive acceleration difference?

[JtD]

In terms of physics:

dive acceleration = earth gravitational constant + excess thrust / mass

It is easy to see that as long as excess thrust is larger than zero, mass will reduce the planes acceleration. Excess thrust will be less than zero when the plane is above level speed for that power setting. Also, in typical flying conditions, earth gravitational constant >> excess thrust / mass, so excess thrust / mass doesn't really matter.

If you don't care about physics, at least search for the TAIC test FC99 mentioned, read it, and adjust your expectations. That time would be a lot better spend than making another dozen posts on the issue here.

[mayshine]

Originally Posted by JtD

In terms of physics:

dive acceleration = earth gravitational constant + excess thrust / mass

It is easy to see that as long as excess thrust is larger than zero, mass will reduce the planes acceleration. Excess thrust will be less than zero when the plane is above level speed for that power setting. Also, in typical flying conditions, earth gravitational constant >> excess thrust / mass, so excess thrust / mass doesn't really matter.

If you don't care about physics, at least search for the TAIC test FC99 mentioned, read it, and adjust your expectations. That time would be a lot better spend than making another dozen posts on the issue here.

Good , finnally I found some one who pose the formular

but I want to correct u in some point

G actually the advantage to heavy planes

see my formular posed previously.

F= ma, a=(m*g - back force)/m

when the backward force become larger and larger

the mass * G will become more and more helpful to speed up the plane.

that means the plane will bigger mass and less back force will be faster

and the back force is complicate,

it is regarded to the strenght of the plane, air wave darg force, pro pitch
propeller tip speed, the shape of the wing, wing load and so on

I dare not to simplify all this in to a univeral A = 8.7m/s as I calculated
previously

Do you still think I do not know physics?

[mayshine]

to make it more obvious

set g=10, m = 10 , back force = 50

first plane mass = 2m
second plane mass = 1m

F=ma

a1: a2
= (2m*g-backforce)/2m : (m*g-backforce)/m
=150/20:50/10
=7.5:5

a1 is 50% faster

[FC99]

So in this extreme case plane have 2,5m/s advantage in acceleration. What will be the difference in distance after 12-13 seconds?

And in the end try with different values for drag for each plane like it is in most real life cases.

[mayshine]

Originally Posted by FC99

Planes don't fly in vacuum. Your diving physics is missing drag.

I just put everything simply in to the "backforce"

even the air fricition and what so ever are supposed to be within the "back force"

and

if the missing drag u mentioned is the drag force by the engine

JTD have already said Mass*G >> engine thrust or so

"earth gravitational constant >> excess thrust / mass, so excess thrust / mass doesn't really matter."

he is wrong?

[FC99]

Originally Posted by mayshine

prove that,

I just put everything simply in to the "backforce"

even the air fricition and what so ever are supposed to be within the "back force"

and

if the missing drag u mentioned is the drag force by the engine

JTD have already said Mass*G >> engine thrust or so

"earth gravitational constant >> excess thrust / mass, so excess thrust / mass doesn't really matter."

please proof I flew in vacuum

I edited my previous post I wrote first version before you posted the calculation with "backforce". As you can calculate than do the full calculation and show us the results which proves how the game is wrong.

Just out of curiosity, how much difference you expect in dives?

[mayshine]

Originally Posted by FC99

I edited my previous post I wrote first version before you posted the calculation with "backforce". As you can calculate than do the full calculation and show us the results which proves how the game is wrong.

Just out of curiosity, how much difference you expect in dives?

sorry I am not sure, but certainly will be different for current version

please do not be offenced,

you know I just try to........

acutually i am happy to be wrong

However I will try to provide more figures in the coming days

so late here now

[mayshine]

Originally Posted by FC99

So in this extreme case plane have 2,5m/s advantage in acceleration. What will be the difference in distance after 12-13 seconds?

And in the end try with different values for drag for each plane like it is in most real life cases.

come on!!!

in this extreme case it is not 2,5m/s advantage

its 50 % speed acceleration advantage

se FW = a1, La = a2
by the time la dive to from 300 to 500km/h , FW will get the speed of 600km/h

enought to do a verticle hammer action.


u know I can feel a lot of people are just defending theirself instead of
looking for truth

[FC99]

Originally Posted by mayshine

come on!!!

in this extreme case it is not 2,5m/s advantage

its 50 % speed acceleration advantage

se FW = a1, La = a2
by the time la dive to from 300 to 500km/h , FW will get the speed of 600km/h

enought to do a verticle hammer action.


u know I can feel a lot of people are just defending theirself instead of
looking for truth

I should be more precise and use m/s^2, I meant acceleration in my post and I still call it just 2,5m/s^2.

Even with this numbers distance between the planes will be less than 200m. Now plug in real numbers for FW and La and do the calculation again. When you include real numbers for mass, drag and thrust difference between La and FW will be very small.

[BadAim]

LOL! You are so funny Mayshine. You tell us we aren't listening, and we don't know what we're talking about, but you have not listened to a bloody word anyone has said here, then you have the unmitigated gall to say that you would be happy to be proven wrong. That's Bull.

You are engaging in mental masturbation, pure and simple.

Have fun.